If the universality of a practice neutralizes moral judgment about it, then: The Holocaust cannot be condemned, because various forms of ethnic persecution have existed in every civilization.
https://x.com/nxt888/status/2058231518213136750
You are making an argument about moral universalism: that because everyone practiced slavery, and even some enslaved people participated in it, no one can claim the moral high ground.
I want to follow that logic and show you where it goes.
If the universality of a practice neutralizes moral judgment about it, then:
The Holocaust cannot be condemned, because various forms of ethnic persecution have existed in every civilization.
Rape in warfare cannot be condemned, because it has occurred in every conflict in recorded history.
Child labor cannot be condemned, because it was universal in pre-industrial societies everywhere on earth.
You would not make those arguments.
You are making this specific argument, about this specific history, in this specific conversation.
The question worth sitting with is: why does the universality argument feel compelling here, when you would reject it instantly in every comparable case?
What is it about this particular history that makes the "everyone did it" defense feel like a relevant response rather than an obvious evasion?
That question is more honest than the argument you're making.

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