I am supposed to believe that this one cryptic reference to “house of David” by author unknown proves the biblical kingdom of David as “secular” zionists conceive of it.
I am supposed to believe that this one cryptic reference to “house of David” by author unknown proves the biblical kingdom of David as “secular” zionists conceive of it.
If I fail to do this, I —not the scholars who are violating all canons of basic rankian historical method by making these wild interpretive leaps, from a non-primary source compiled 150 years after David’s historical reign to something akin to the biblical narrative—I am “biased” and “ideological” and have a predetermined conclusion.
By the way there is literally no other evidence (archaeological or otherwise) of the kingdom of David. The archaeology presented as such is all misdated, and the other supposed reference to the house of David was (unlike this one) mistranslated.
posted by Satish Sharma at
04:51
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